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Legal Critical Thinking Test For Nurses

The NCLEX-RN Test Plan is organized into four major Client Needs categories. Two of the four categories are divided into subcategories as shown below:

Click on the section names below to jump to a particular section of the RegisteredNursing.org NCLEX-RN Practice Exam.

  • You should respond to the couple by stating that only unanticipated treatments and procedures that are not included in the advance directive can be made by the legally appointed durable power of attorney for healthcare decisions.
  • You should be aware of the fact that the wife of the client has a knowledge deficit relating to advance directives and durable powers of attorney for healthcare decisions and plan an educational activity to meet this learning need.
  • You should be aware of the fact that the client has a knowledge deficit relating to advance directives and durable powers of attorney for healthcare decisions and plan an educational activity to meet this learning need.
  • You should reinforce the wife’s belief that legally married spouses automatically serve for the other spouse’s durable power of attorney for health care decisions and that others than the spouse cannot be legally appointed while people are married

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Correct Response: A

You should respond to the couple by stating that only unanticipated treatments and procedures that are not included in the advance directive can be made by the legally appointed durable power of attorney for healthcare decisions.

Both the client and the client’s spouse have knowledge deficits relating to advance directives. Legally married spouses do not automatically serve for the other spouse’s durable power of attorney for health care decisions; others than the spouse can be legally appointed while people are married.

  • Privacy and to have their medical information confidential unless the client formally approves the sharing of this information with others such as family members.
  • Make healthcare decisions and to have these decisions protected and communicated to others when they are no longer competent to do so.
  • Be fully informed about all treatments in term of their benefits, risks and alternatives to them so the client can make a knowledgeable and informed decision about whether or not to agree to having it
  • Make decisions about who their health care provider is without any coercion or undue influence of others including healthcare providers.

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Correct Response: B, D

The Patient Self Determination Act, which was passed by the US Congress in 1990, gives Americans the right to make healthcare decisions and to have these decisions protected and communicated to others when they are no longer competent to do so. These decisions can also include rejections for future care and treatment and these decisions are reflect in advance directives. This Act also supports the rights of the client to be free of any coercion or any undue influence of others including healthcare providers.

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) supports and upholds the clients’ rights to confidentially and the privacy of their medical related information regardless of its form. It covers hard copy and electronic medical records unless the client has formally approved the sharing of this information with others such as family members.

The elements of informed consent which includes information about possible treatments and procedures in terms of their benefits, risks and alternatives to them so the client can make a knowledgeable and informed decision about whether or not to agree to having it may be part of these advanced directives, but the law that protects these advance directives is the Patient Self Determination Act.

  • Call the doctor and advise them that the client’s physical status has significantly changed and that they have just had a cardiopulmonary arrest.
  • Begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation other emergency life saving measures.
  • Notify the family of the client’s condition and ask them what they should be done for the client.
  • Insure that the client is without any distressing signs and symptoms at the end of life.

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Correct Response: B

You must immediately begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation and all life saving measures as requested.by the client in their advance directive despite the nurse’s own beliefs and professional opinions. Nurses must uphold the client’s right to accept, choose and reject any and all of treatments, as stated in the client’s advance directive.

You would not call the doctor first; your priority is the sustaining of the client’s life; you would also not immediately notify the family for the same reason and, when you do communicate with the family at a later time, you would not ask them what should or should not be done for the client when they wishes are already contained in the client’s advance directive.

Finally, you would also insure that the client is without pain and all other distressing signs and symptoms at the end of life, but the priority and the first thing that you would do is immediately begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation and all life saving measures as requested by the client in their advance directive, according to the ABCs and Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs.

  • Case manager
  • Collaborator
  • Coordinator of care
  • Advocacy

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Correct Response: D

The priority role of the nurse is advocacy. The nurse must serve as the advocate for both the fetus and the mother at risk as the result of this ethical dilemma where neither option is desirable. As an advocate, the nurse would seek out resources and people, such as the facility’s ethicist or the ethics committee, to resolve this ethical dilemma.

  • Client advocate
  • Collaborator
  • Politician
  • Entrepreneur

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Correct Response: A

A nurse who organizes and establishes a political action committee (PAC) in their local community to address issues relating to the accessibility and affordability of healthcare resources in the community is serving as the client advocate. As you should know, the definition of “client” includes not only individual clients, and families as a unit, but also populations such as the members of the local community.

Although the nurse, as the organizer of this political action committee (PAC), will have to collaborate with members of the community to promote the accessibility and affordability of healthcare resources in the community, this is a secondary role rather than the primary role.

Additionally, although the nurse is serving in a political advocacy effort, the nurse is not necessarily a politician and there is no evidence that this nurse is an entrepreneur.

  • The right task, the right circumstances, the right person, the right competency, and the right supervision or feedback
  • The right task, the right circumstances, the right person, the right direction or communication, and the right supervision or feedback
  • The right competency, the right education and training, the right scope of practice, the right environment and the right client condition
  • The right competency, the right person, the right scope of practice, the right environment and the right client condition

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Correct Response: B

The Five Rights of Delegation include the right task, the right circumstances, the right person, the right direction or communication, and the right supervision or feedback.

The right competency is not one of these basic Five Rights, but instead, competency is considered and validated as part of the combination of matching the right task and the right person; the right education and training are functions of the right task and the right person who is able to competently perform the task; the right scope of practice, the right environment and the right client condition are functions of the legal match of the person and the task; and the setting of care which is not a Right of Delegation and the matching of the right person, task and circumstances.

 

  • The American Nurses Association’s Scopes of Practice
  • The American Nurses Association’s Standards of Care
  • State statutes
  • Federal law

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Correct Response: C

The registered nurse, prior to the delegation of tasks to other members of the nursing care team, evaluates the ability of staff members to perform assigned tasks for the position as based on state statutes that differentiate among the different types of nurses and unlicensed assistive personnel that are legally able to perform different tasks.

Although the American Nurses Association’s Standards of Care guide nursing practice, these standards are professional rather than legal standards and the American Nurses Association does not have American Nurses Association’s Scopes of Practice, only the states’ laws or statutes do.

Lastly, scopes of practice are within the legal domain of the states and not the federal government.

  • Observe the staff member during an entire shift of duty to determine whether or not the nurse has accurately and appropriately established priorities.
  • Observe the staff member during an entire shift of duty to determine whether or not the nurse has accurately and appropriately completed priority tasks.
  • Ask the staff member how they feel like they have been able to employ their time management skills for the last six months.
  • Collect outcome data over time and then aggregate and analyze this data to determine whether or not the staff member has completed reasonable assignments in the allotted time before the end of their shift of duty.

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Correct Response: D

The best way to objectively evaluate the effectiveness of an individual staff member’s time management skills in a longitudinal manner is to collect outcome data over time, and then aggregate and analyze this data to determine whether or not the staff member has completed reasonable assignments in the allotted time before the end of their shift of duty. Another way to perform this longitudinal evaluation is to look at the staff member’s use of over time, like the last six months, when the unit was adequately staffed.

Observing the staff member during an entire shift of duty to determine whether or not the nurse has accurately and appropriately established priorities is a way to evaluate the short term abilities for establishing priorities and not assignment completion and observing the staff member during an entire shift of duty to determine whether or not the nurse has accurately and appropriately completed priority tasks is a way to evaluate the short term abilities for completing established priorities and not a complete assignment which also includes tasks that are not of the highest priority.

Lastly, asking the staff member how they feel like they have been able to employ their time management skills for the last six months is the use of subjective rather than objective evaluation.

  • An unlicensed staff member who has been “certified” by the employing agency to monitor telemetry: Monitoring cardiac telemetry
  • An unlicensed assistive staff member like a nursing assistant who has been “certified” by the employing agency to insert a urinary catheter: Inserting a urinary catheter
  • A licensed practical nurse: The circulating nurse in the perioperative area
  • A licensed practical nurse: The first assistant in the perioperative area

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Correct Response: A

An unlicensed staff member who has been “certified” by the employing agency to monitor telemetry can monitor cardiac telemetry; they cannot, however, interpret these cardiac rhythms and initiate interventions when interventions are indicated. Only the nurse can perform these roles.

Unlicensed assistive staff member like a nursing assistant cannot under any circumstances be certified” by the employing agency to insert a urinary catheter or insert a urinary catheter because this is a sterile procedure and, legally, no sterile procedures can be done by an unlicensed assistive staff member like a nursing assistant.

Lastly, the role of the circulating nurse is within the exclusive scope of practice for the registered nurse and the role of the first assistant is assumed only by a registered nurse with the advanced training and education necessary to perform competently in this capacity. Neither of these roles can be delegated to a licensed practical nurse or an unlicensed assistive staff member like a nursing assistant or a surgical technician.

  • Only the VA health care services because he is not 65 years of age
  • Medicare because he has been deemed permanently disabled for 2 years
  • Medicaid because he is permanently disabled and not able to work
  • Choices B and C

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Correct Response: B

This client is legally eligible for Medicare because he has been deemed permanently disabled for more than 2 years in addition to the VA health care services. People over the age of 65 and those who are permanently disabled for at least two years, according to the Social Security Administration, are eligible for Medicare.

Based on the information in this scenario, the client is not eligible for Medicaid because has a “substantial” VA disability check on a monthly basis and is not indigent and with a low income.

  • The case manager’s role in terms of organization wide performance improvement activities
  • The case manager’s role in terms complete, timely and accurate documentation
  • The case manager’s role in terms of the clients’ being at the appropriate level of care
  • The case manager’s role in terms of contesting denied reimbursements

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Correct Response: C

Registered nurse case managers have a primary case management responsibility associated with reimbursement because they are responsible for insuring that the client is being cared for at the appropriate level of care along the continuum of care that is consistent with medical necessity and the client’s current needs. A failure to insure the appropriate level of care jeopardizes reimbursement. For example, care in an acute care facility will not be reimbursed when the client’s current needs can be met in a subacute or long term care setting.

Nurse case managers do not have organization wide performance improvement activities, the supervision of complete, timely and accurate documentation or challenging denied reimbursements in their role. These roles and responsibilities are typically assumed by quality assurance/performance improvement, supervisory staff and medical billers, respectively.

  • The ProACT Model: Registered nurses perform the role of the primary nurse in addition to the related coding and billing functions
  • The Collaborative Practice Model: The registered nurse performs the role of the primary nurse in addition to the role of the clinical case manager with administrative, supervisory and fiscal responsibilities
  • The Case Manager Model: The management and coordination of care for clients throughout a facility who share the same DRG or medical diagnosis
  • The Triad Model of Case Management: The joint collaboration of the social worker, the nursing case manager, and the utilization review team

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Correct Response: D

The Triad Model of case management entails the joint collaboration of the social worker, the nursing case manager, and the utilization review team.

The Professionally Advanced Care Team, referred to as the ProACT Model, which was developed at the Robert Wood Johnson University Hospital, entails registered nurses serving in the role of both the primary nurse the clinical case manager with no billing and coding responsibilities; these highly specialized and technical billing and coding responsibilities are done by the business office, medical billers and medical coders.

The Case Manager Model entails the registered nurses’ role in terms of case management for a particular nursing care unit for a group of clients with the same medical diagnosis or DRG. In contrast to this Case Manager Model of Beth Israel Hospital, the Collaborative Practice Model of case management entails the role of some registered nurses in a particular healthcare facility to manage, coordinate, guide and direct the complex care of a population of clients throughout the entire healthcare facility who share a particular diagnosis or Diagnostic Related Group.

  • The Case Manager Model
  • The ProACT Model
  • The Collaborative Practice Model
  • The Triad Model of Case Management

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Correct Response: A

The Case Manager Model and the Collaborative Practice Model of case management are the only models of case management that employ the mandated and intrinsic use of critical pathways which are multidisciplinary plans of care that are based on the client’s current condition, and that reflect interventions and expected outcomes within a pre-established time line.

The ProACT Model, the Collaborative Practice Model and the Triad Model of Case Management do not necessarily employ critical pathways; these models can use any system of medical records and documentation.

  • An opt out consent
  • An implicit consent
  • An explicit consent
  • No consent at all is given

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Correct Response: B

The type of legal consent that is indirectly given by the client by the very nature of their voluntary acute care hospitalization is an implicit consent indirectly given by the client by the very nature of their voluntary acute care hospitalization is an implicit consent.

An explicit consent, on the other hand, is the direct and formal consent of the client; and an opt out consent is given when a patient does NOT refuse a treatment; this lack of objections by the patient indicates that the person has consented to the treatment or procedure with an opt out consent.

  • Take the photographs because these photographs are part of the holiday tradition at this facility
  • Take the photographs because all of the residents are properly attired and in a dignified condition
  • Refuse to take the photographs unless you have the consent of all to do so
  • Refuse to take the photographs because this is not part of the nurse’s role

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Correct Response: C

You should refuse to take the photographs unless you have the consent of all to do so because to do otherwise is a violation of the residents’ rights to privacy and confidentiality as provided in the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA). This, rather than the false belief that this is not part of the nurse’s role, is the reason that you would not automatically take these photographs.

Regardless of whether or not these photographs are part of the holiday tradition at this facility and whether or not the residents are properly attired and in a dignified condition, no photographs can be legally taken without the residents’ permission and consent.

  • The Patient Self Determination Act: The client’s right to choose the level of care
  • The Patient Self Determination Act: The clients’ right to healthcare insurance coverage for mental health disorders
  • The Mental Health Parity Act: The privacy and security of technological psychiatric information
  • The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA): The privacy and security of technological medical information

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Correct Response: D

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) protects the client’s legal rights to the privacy, security and confidentiality of all medical information including data and information that is technologically stored and secured.

The Patient Self Determination Act uphold the client’s right to choose and reject care and not the level of care that is driven and decided upon as based on medical necessity and health insurance reimbursement; this Act also does not give client’s the right to any health insurance including healthcare insurance coverage for  mental health disorders.

Lastly, the Mental Health Parity and Addiction Equality Act, passed in 2008, mandates insurance coverage for mental health and psychiatric health services in a manner similar to medical and surgical insurance coverage; it does not protect the privacy and security of technological psychiatric information, HIPAA does.

  • The physical therapist
  • The occupational therapist
  • The podiatrist
  • The nurse practitioner

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Correct Response: A

The member of the multidisciplinary team that you would most likely collaborate with when the client is at risk for falls due to an impaired gait is a physical therapist. Physical therapists are licensed healthcare professionals who assess, plan, implement and evaluate interventions including those related to the patient’s functional abilities in terms of their gait, strength, mobility, balance, coordination, and joint range of motion. They also provide patients with assistive aids like walkers and canes and exercise regimens.

Occupational therapists assess, plan, implement and evaluate interventions including those that facilitate the patient’s ability to achieve their highest possible level of independence in terms of their activities of daily living such as bathing, grooming, eating and dressing.

Podiatrists care for disorders and diseases of the foot; and nurse practitioners, depending on their area of specialty, may also collaborate with nurses when a client is affected with a disorder in terms of gait, strength, mobility, balance, coordination, and joint range of motion, however the member of the multidisciplinary team that you would most likely collaborate with when the client is at risk for falls due to an impaired gait is a physical therapist.

  • The physical therapist
  • The occupational therapist
  • The dietician
  • The podiatrist

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Correct Response: B

The member of the multidisciplinary team that you would most likely collaborate with when the client can benefit from the use of adaptive devices for eating is the occupational therapist. Occupational therapists assess, plan, implement and evaluate interventions including those that facilitate the patient’s ability to achieve their highest possible level of independence in terms of their activities of daily living such as bathing, grooming, eating and dressing. Many of these interventions include adaptive devices such as special eating utensils and grooming aids.

Physical therapists are licensed healthcare professionals who assess, plan, implement and evaluate interventions including those related to the patient’s functional abilities in terms of their gait, strength, mobility, balance, coordination, and joint range of motion. They also provide patients with assistive aids like walkers and canes and exercise regimens.

Dieticians assess, plan, implement and evaluate interventions including those relating to dietary needs of those patients who need regular or therapeutic diets. They also provide dietary education and work with other members of the healthcare need when a client has dietary needs secondary to physical disorders such as dysphagia; and podiatrists care for disorders and diseases of the foot.

  • To fulfill the nurse’s role in terms of collaboration
  • To plan and provide for optimal client outcomes
  • To solve complex multidisciplinary patient care problems
  • To provide educational experiences for experienced nurses

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Correct Response: C

The primary goal of multidisciplinary case conferences is to plan care that facilitates optimal client outcomes. Other benefits of multidisciplinary case conferences include the fulfillment of the nurse’s role in terms of collaboration and collegiality, to solve complex multidisciplinary patient care problems so that optimal client outcomes can be achieved and also to provide educational experiences for nurses; these things are secondary rather than primary goals.

  • A Pedorthist
  • A pediatric nurse practitioner
  • A trauma certified clinical nurse specialist
  • A prosthetist

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Correct Response: D

The member of the multidisciplinary team would you most likely collaborate with when your pediatric client has had a traumatic amputation secondary to a terrorism blast explosion a month ago or more ago is a prosthetist. Prosthetists, in collaboration with other members of the healthcare team, assess patients and then design, fit and supply the patient with an artificial body part such as a leg or arm prosthesis. They also follow-up with patients who have gotten a prosthesis to check and adjust it in terms of proper fit, patient comfort and functioning.

Pedorthists modify and provide corrective footwear and employ supportive devices to address conditions which affect the feet and lower limbs. Lastly, you may collaborate with a trauma certified clinical nurse specialist and a pediatric nurse practitioner but this consultation and collaboration should begin immediately upon arrival to the emergency department, and not a month after the injury.

  • Conceptualization conflicts
  • Avoidance - Avoidance conflicts
  • Approach - Approach conflicts
  • Resolvable conflicts
  • Unresolvable conflicts
  • Double Approach - Avoidance conflicts
  • Approach-Avoidance conflicts

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Correct Response: B, C, F, G

According to Lewin, the types of conflict are Avoidance-Avoidance conflicts, Approach- Approach conflicts, Double Approach - Avoidance conflicts and Approach-Avoidance conflicts.

  • Frustration: The phase of conflict that is characterized with personal agendas and obstruction
  • Conceptualization: The phase of conflict that occurs when contending parties have developed a clear and objective understanding of the nature of the conflict and factors that have led to it
  • Taking action: The phase of conflict that is characterized with individual responses to and feelings about the conflict
  • Resolution: The type of conflict that can be resolved
  • Avoidance-Avoidance: A stage of conflict that occurs when there are NO alternatives that are acceptable to the contending parties
  • Approach- Approach Conflicts: The type of conflict that occurs when the people involved in the conflict want more than one alternatives or actions that could resolve the conflict.
  • Approach-Avoidance Conflicts: The type of conflict that occurs when the people involved in the conflict believe that all of the alternatives are NEITHER completely satisfactory nor completely dissatisfactory.

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Correct Response: C, F, G

Taking action is the phase of conflict that is characterized with individual responses to and feelings about the conflict; Approach- Approach conflicts are a type of conflict that occurs when the people involved in the conflict want more than one alternatives or actions that could resolve the conflict; and Approach-Avoidance conflicts are a type of conflict that occurs when the people involved in the conflict believe that all of the alternatives are NEITHER completely satisfactory or completely dissatisfactory.

Frustration is the phase of conflict that occurs when those involved in the conflict believe that their goals and needs are being blocked and not met, and not necessarily characterized with personal agendas and obstruction; conceptualization is the phase of conflict that occurs when those involved in the conflict begin to understand what the conflict is all about and why it has occurred. This understanding often varies from person to person and this personal understanding may or may not be accurate, clear or objective, and not a clear and objective understanding of the nature of the conflict and factors that have led to it; resolution is a phase of conflict resolution, not a type of conflict, that is characterized when the contending parties are able to come to some agreement using mediation, negotiation or another method; an Avoidance-Avoidance conflict is a type of conflict and not a phase of conflict, that occurs when there are NO alternatives that are acceptable to any the contending parties; Approach- Approach conflicts occur when the people involved in the conflict want more than one alternative or action that could resolve the conflict; and lastly, Double Approach - Avoidance is a type of conflict and not a stage of conflict that occurs when the people involved in the conflict are forced to choose among alternatives and actions, all of which have BOTH  positive and negative aspects to them.

  • Passivity
  • Compromise
  • Competition
  • Accommodating Others

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Correct Response: B

Conflicts can be effectively resolved using a number of different strategies and techniques such as compromise, negotiation, and mediation.

Avoidance of the conflict, withdrawing in addition to other passivity, competition, and accommodating others are not effective and healthy conflict resolution techniques.

  • Conceptualization
  • Frustration
  • Resolution
  • Taking action

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Correct Response: B, A, D, C

The stages of conflict and conflict resolution in the correct sequential order are frustration, conceptualization, and taking action.

  • The Patient Self Determination Act
  • The Mental Health Parity Act
  • The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
  • The Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990

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Correct Response: C

The federal law is most closely associated with the highly restrictive “need to know” is the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act. This law restricts access to medical information to only those persons who have the need to know this information in order to provide direct and/or indirect care to the client.

The Patient Self Determination Act, which was passed by the US Congress in 1990, gives Americans the right to make healthcare decisions and to have these decisions protected and communicated to others when they are no longer competent to do so. These decisions can also include rejections for future care and treatment and these decisions are reflect in advance directives. This Act also supports the rights of the client to be free of any coercion or any undue influence of others including healthcare providers.

The Mental Health Parity Act passed in 2008, mandates insurance coverage for mental health and psychiatric health services in a manner similar to medical and surgical insurance coverage.

And, lastly the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 and the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 forbid and prohibit any discrimination against people with disabilities.

  • The facility’s Performance Improvement Director who is not a healthcare person and who has no direct contact with clients
  • A nursing student who is caring for a client under the supervision of the nursing instructor
  • The facility’s Safety Officer who is not a healthcare person and who has no direct contact with clients
  • A department supervisor with no direct or indirect care duties

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Correct Response: D

A department supervisor with no direct or indirect care duties does not have the “right to know” medical information; all of the others have the “right to know” medical information because they provide direct or indirect care to clients.

For example, both the facility’s Performance Improvement Director who is not a healthcare person and who has no direct contact with clients and the facility’s Safety Officer who is not a healthcare person and who has no direct contact with clients provide indirect care to clients. For example, they collect and analyze client data in order to fulfill their role and responsibilities in terms of process improvements and the prevention of incidents and accidents, respectively.

Nursing and other healthcare students also have the “need to know” medical information so that they can provide direct client care to their assigned client(s).

  • “A computer in the hallway was left unattended and a client’s medical record was visible to me.”
  • “I just saw a nursing student looking at the medical record for a client that they are NOT caring for during this clinical experience.”
  • “As I was walking past the nursing station, I saw a dietician reading the progress notes written by members of the laboratory department in addition to other dieticians’ progress notes.”
  • “I refused the nursing supervisor’s request to share my electronic password for the new nurse on the unit.”

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Correct Response: C

A staff members comment, “As I was walking past the nursing station, I saw a dietician reading the progress notes written by members of the laboratory department in addition to other dieticians’ progress notes” “indicates the need for the Nurse Manager to provide an educational activity relating to confidentiality and information security because dieticians often have the “need to know” about laboratory data so that they can, for example, assess the client’s nutritional status in terms of their creatinine levels.

The report that the nursing student was “looking at the medical record for a client that they are NOT caring for during this clinical experience” indicates that the  reporting staff member is correctly applying the principles for maintaining confidentiality and privacy of information; the report that a “computer in the hallway was left unattended and a client’s medical record was visible to me” indicates that the  reporting staff member is correctly applying the principles for maintaining confidentiality and privacy of information; and lastly, “I refused the nursing supervisor’s request to share my electronic password for the new nurse on the unit” also indicates that the staff member is knowledgeable about privacy and confidentiality.

  • Case management
  • Continuity of care
  • Medical necessity
  • Critical pathway

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Correct Response: B

The continuity of care is defined as the sound, timely, smooth, unfragmented and seamless transition of a client from one area within the same healthcare facility, from one level of care to a higher and more intense level of care or to a less intense level of care based on the client’s status and level of acuity, from one healthcare facility to another healthcare facility and also any discharges to the home in the client’s community.

Case management and critical pathways may be used to facilitate the continuity of care, but they are not the sound, timely, smooth, unfragmented and seamless transition of the client from one level of acuity to another. Lastly, medical necessity is necessary for reimbursement and it is one of the considerations for moving the client from one level of acuity to another but medical necessity is not the continuity of care.

  • The Four P's
  • UBAR
  • ISBAR
  • MAUMAR

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Correct Response: C

The standardized “hand off” change of shift reporting system that you may want to consider for implementation on your nursing care unit is ISBAR. Other standardized change of shift “hand off” reports, as recommended by the Joint Commission on the Accreditation of Healthcare Organization, include:

  • SBAR, not IBAR
  • BATON
  • The Five Ps not the Four Ps and
  • IPASS

Lastly, MAUUAR is a method of priority setting and not a standardized “hand off” change of shift reporting system.

  • SBAR: Symptoms, background, assessment and recommendations
  • ISBAR: Interventions, symptoms, background, assessment and recommendations
  • The Five Ps: The patient, plan, purpose, problems and precautions
  • BATON: Background, assessment, timing, ownership and next plans

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Correct Response: C

The Five Ps are the patient, plan, purpose, problems and precautions.

The elements of the other standardized reporting systems are listed below:

SBAR stands for:

  • S: Situation: The patient’s diagnosis, complaint, plan of care and the patient's prioritized needs
  • B: Background: The patient’s code or DNR status,  vital Signs, medications and lab results
  • A: Assessment: The current assessment of the situation and the patient’s status and
  • R: Recommendations:  All unresolved issues including things like pending diagnostic testing results and what has to be done over the next few hours

ISBAR stands for:

  • I: Introduction: The introduction of the nurse, the nurse’s role in care and the area or department that you are from
  • S: Situation: The patient’s diagnosis, complaint, plan of care and the patient's prioritized needs
  • B: Background: The patient’s code or DNR status,  vital Signs, medications and lab results
  • A: Assessment: The current assessment of the situation and the patient’s status and
  • R: Recommendations: All unresolved issues including things like pending diagnostic testing results and what has to be done over the next few hours

BATON stands for:

  • B: Background: Past and current medical history, including medications
  • A: Actions: What actions were taken and/or those actions that are currently required
  • T: Timing: Priorities and level of urgency
  • O: Ownership: Who is responsible for what? and
  • N: Next: The future plan of care

IPASS stands for:

  • Introduction: The introduction of the nurse, the nurse’s role in care and the area or department that you are from
  • P: Patient: The patient’s name, age, gender, location and other demographic data
  • A: Assessment: The current assessment of the situation and the patient’s status
  • S: Situation: The patient’s diagnosis, complaint, plan of care and the patient's prioritized needs and
  • S: Safety concerns: Physical, mental and social risks and concerns
  • 3,4,2,1,5,6
  • 3,4,5,1,2,6
  • 2,3,5,1,4,6
  • 3,2,4,1,5,6

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Correct Response:

Client needs are prioritized in a number of different ways including Maslow’s Hierarchy of Human Needs and the ABCs. In terms of priorities from # 1 to # 6 the conditions above are prioritized as follows:

  • An obstructed airway
  • First degree heart block
  • Atrial fibrillation
  • Shortness of breath upon exertion
  • Fluid needs
  • Respect and esteem by others

The ABCs identifies the airway, breathing and cardiovascular status of the patient as the highest of all priorities in that sequential order; and Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs identifies the physiological or biological needs, including the ABCs, the safety/psychological/emotional needs, the need for love and belonging, the needs for self-esteem and the esteem by others and the self-actualization needs in that order of priority.

  • Assessment
  • Movement
  • Understanding level
  • Risks

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Correct Response: D

One of the 2nd priority needs according to the MAAUAR method of priority setting is risks.

The ABCs / MAAUAR method of priority setting places the ABCs, again, as the highest and greatest priorities which are then followed with the 2nd and 3rd priority level needs of the MAAUAR method of priority setting.

The 2nd priority needs according to the MAAUAR method of priority setting after the ABCs include M-A-A-U-A-R which stands for:

  • Mental status changes and alterations
  • Acute pain
  • Acute urinary elimination concerns
  • Unaddressed and untreated problems that require immediate priority attention
  • Abnormal laboratory and other diagnostic data that are outside of normal limits and
  • Risks including those relating to a healthcare problem like safety, skin breakdown, infection and other medical conditions

The 3rd level priorities include all concerns and problems that are NOT covered under the 2nd level priority needs and the ABCs. For example, increased levels of self care abilities and skills and enhanced knowledge of a medical condition are considered 2nd level priority needs.

  • Time management skills
  • Communication skills
  • Collaboration skills
  • Supervision skills

Show Correct Response >>>

Correct Response: A

Time management skills are most closely related to successfully meeting the established priority needs of a group of clients.

In addition to prioritizing and reprioritizing, the nurse should also have a plan of action to effectively manage their time; they should avoid unnecessary interruptions, time wasters and helping others when this helping others could potentially jeopardize their own priorities of care.

Although good communication skills, collaboration skills and supervision are necessary for the delivery of nursing care, it is time management skills that are most closely related to successfully meeting the established priority needs of a group of clients.

  • Morals
  • Laws
  • Statutes
  • Client rights

Show Correct Response >>>

Correct Response: A

Morals are most closely aligned with ethics. Ethics is a set of beliefs and principles that guide us in terms of the right and wrong thing to do which is the most similar to ethics.

Laws and statutes defined what things are legal and what things are illegal. Lastly, client rights can serve as a factor to consider when ethical decisions are made; but they are not most closely aligned with ethics, but only, one consideration of many that can be used in ethical decision making.

 

  • Deontology: The school of ethical of thought that requires that only the means to the goal must be ethical.
  • Utilitarianism: The school of ethical of thought that requires that only the end goal must be ethical.
  • Deontology: The school of ethical of thought that requires that only the end goal must be ethical.
  • Utilitarianism: The school of ethical of thought that requires that only the means to the goal must be ethical.

Show Correct Response >>>

Correct Response: B

The two major classifications of ethical principles and ethical thought are utilitarianism and deontology. Deontology is the ethical school of thought that requires that both the means and the end goal must be moral and ethical; and the utilitarian school of ethical thought states that the end goal justifies the means even when the means are not moral.

  • Justice: Equally dividing time and other resources among a group of clients
  • Beneficence: Doing no harm during the course of nursing care
  • Veracity: Fully answering the client’s questions without any withholding of information
  • Fidelity: Upholding the American Nurses Association’s Code of Ethics

Show Correct Response >>>

Correct Response: C

Fully answering the client’s questions without any withholding of information is an example of the application of veracity into nursing practice. Veracity is being completely truthful with patients; nurses must not withhold the whole truth from clients even when it may lead to patient distress.

Justice is fairness. Nurses must be fair when they distribute care and resources equitably, which is not always equally among a group of patients. Beneficence is doing good and the right thing for the patient; it is nonmaleficence that is doing no harm.

  • Planning a way to evaluate the effectiveness of the class by seeing a decrease in the amount of referrals to the facility’s Ethics Committee
  • Establishing educational objectives for the class that reflect the methods and methodology that you will use to present the class content
  • The need to exclude case studies from the class because this would violate client privacy and confidentiality
  • Some of the most commonly occurring bioethical concerns including genetic engineering into the course content

Show Correct Response >>>

Correct Response: D

You would consider including some of the most commonly occurring bioethical concerns including genetic engineering into the course content.

You would also plan how you could evaluate the effectiveness of the class by seeing an increase, not a decrease in the amount of referrals to the facility’s Ethics Committee, because one of the elements of this class should address ethical dilemmas and the role of the Ethics Committee in terms of resolving these.

You would additionally establish educational objectives for the class that reflect specific, measurable learner outcomes and not the methods and methodology that you will use to present the class content; and lastly, there is no need to exclude case studies from the class because “sanitized” medical records can, and should be, used to avoid any violations of client privacy and confidentiality.

  • Serve as the witness to the client’s signature on an informed consent.
  • Get and witness the client’s signature on an informed consent.
  • Get and witness the durable power of attorney for health care decisions’ signature on an informed consent.
  • None of the above

Show Correct Response >>>

Correct Response: A

One of the roles of the registered nurse in terms of informed consent is to serve as the witness to the client’s signature on an informed consent.

Other roles and responsibilities of the registered nurse in terms of informed consent include identifying the appropriate person to provide informed consent for client, such as the client, parent or legal guardian, to provide written materials in client’s spoken language, when possible, to know and apply the components of informed consent, and to also verify that the client comprehends and consents to care and procedures.

The registered nurse does not get the client’s or durable power of attorney for health care decisions’ signature on an informed consent, this is the role and responsibility of the physician or another licensed independent practitioner.

  • Justice
  • Fidelity
  • Self determination
  • Nonmalficence

Show Correct Response >>>

Correct Response: C

Self-determination is most closely aligned with the principles and concepts of informed consent. Self-determination supports the client’s right to choose and reject treatments and procedures after they have been informed and fully knowledgeable about the treatment or procedure.

Justice is fairness. Nurses must be fair when they distribute care and resources equitably, which is not always equally among a group of patients; fidelity is the ethical principle that requires nurses to be honest, faithful and true to their professional promises and responsibilities by providing high quality, safe care in a competent manner; and, lastly, nonmaleficence is doing no harm, as stated in the historical Hippocratic Oath.

  • The purpose of the proposed treatment or procedure
  • The expected outcomes of the proposed treatment or procedure
  • Who will perform the treatment or procedure
  • When the procedure or treatment will be done

Show Correct Response >>>

Correct Response: D

The minimal essential components of the education that occurs prior to getting an informed consent include the purpose of the proposed treatment or procedure, the expected outcomes of the proposed treatment or procedure, and who will perform the treatment or procedure. It is not necessary to include when the treatment or procedure will be done at this time.

Other essential elements include:

  • The benefits of the proposed treatment or procedure
  • The possible risks associated with the proposed treatment or procedure
  • The alternatives to the particular treatment or procedure
  • The benefits and risks associated with alternatives to the proposed treatment or procedure
  • The client’s right to refuse a proposed treatment or procedure
  • The Security Rule
  • The American Nurses Association’s Code of Ethics
  • The American Hospital’s Patients’ Bill of Rights
  • The Autonomy Rule

Show Correct Response >>>

Correct Response: A

Prohibitions against sharing passwords are legally based on the Security Rule of HIPAA mandates administrative, physical, and technical safeguards to insure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of electronic protected health information.  This rule relates to electronic information security as well as other forms of information.

The American Nurses Association’s Code of Ethics and the American Hospital’s Patients’ Bill of Rights both address client confidentiality and their rights to privacy, however, these statements are not legal, but instead ethical and regulatory statements; and lastly, there is no autonomy law or rule.

 

  • Social networks and cell phone cameras pose low risk in terms of information technology security and confidentiality.
  • The security of technological data and information in healthcare environments is most often violated by those who work there.
  • The security of technological data and information in healthcare environments is most often violated by computer hackers.
  • Computer data deletion destroys all evidence of the data.

Show Correct Response >>>

Correct Response: B

The security of technological data and information in healthcare environments is most often violated by those who work there. The vast majority of these violations occur as the result of inadvertent breaches with carelessness and the lack of thought on the part of employees. Technology is a double edged sword.

Technological advances such as cell phone cameras, social networks like Facebook, telephone answering machines and fax machines pose great risk in terms of the confidentiality and the security of medical information. Computer data deletion does not always destroy all evidence of the data; data remains.

  • Assault: Touching a person without their consent
  • Battery: Threatening to touch a person without their consent
  • Slander: False oral defamatory statements.
  • Slander: False written defamatory statements.

Show Correct Response >>>

Correct Response: C

Slander is false oral defamatory statements; and libel is written defamation of character using false statements.

Assault, an intentional tort, is threatening to touch a person without their consent; and battery, another intentional tort, is touching a person without their consent.

  • Ensured the client’s safety which is a high patient care priority
  • Violated Respondeat Superior
  • Violated the client’s right to dignity
  • Committed a crime

Show Correct Response >>>

Correct Response: D

When you loosely apply a bed sheet around your client’s waist to prevent a fall from the chair, you have falsely imprisoned the client with this make shift restraint. False imprisonment is restraining, detaining and/or restricting a person’s freedom of movement. Using a restraint without an order is considered false imprisonment even when it is done to protect the client’s safety.

Respondeat Superior is the legal doctrine or principle that states that employers are legally responsible for the acts and behaviors of its employees. Respondeat Superior does not, however, relieve the nurse of legal responsibility and accountability for their actions. They remain liable.

There is no evidence in this question that you have violated the client’s right to dignity.

  • Respondeat Superior does not mean that a nurse cannot be held liable.
  • Respondeat Superior does not mean that a nurse cannot be held libel.
  • Respondeat Superior is an ethical principle.
  • Respondeat Superior is a law.

Show Correct Response >>>

Correct Response: A

Respondeat Superior does not mean that a nurse cannot be held liable and not libel which is a written defamation of character using false statements. Liability is legal vulnerability.

Respondeat Superior is the legal doctrine or principle and not a law or ethical principle.

  • Causation, foreseeability, damages to the patient, a duty that was owed to the client and this duty was breached, and direct rather than indirect harm to the client.
  • Causation, foreseeability, damages to the patient, a duty that was owed to the client and this duty was breached, and direct and/or indirect harm to the client.
  • Causation, correlation, damages to the patient, a duty that was owed to the client and this duty was breached, and direct and/or indirect harm to the client.
  • Causation, foreseeability, damages to the patient, a duty that was owed to the client and this duty was breached, and a medical license.

Here are 165 free nursing quizzes with 12,360 questions that we have updated for our Quiz Center. These HTML5 quizzes now work on most mobile devices and all major browsers. (See Technology Notes below).

Click on the Quiz Name to open it. Read the instructions and then proceed to do the quiz. Immediate feedback is provided for each question as well as a review and summary of how well you did. You have the option to Print out the quiz results for your records. For quizzes that have a pool of items, different questions are selected each time, and the questions and answers are also randomized.

Names: You have the option to enter your name and course/instructor/other information at the beginning of each quiz. This data is included in the quiz Print Results and Certificate should you want these as a confirmation for an assignment, continuing education credits or continuing competence program. Otherwise, enter Guest or any other name.

E-mail results: You can now enter an optional e-mail address to which the quiz results can be sent (PASS results only). This can be your own e-mail address, or that of your instructor/teacher or supervisor/manager, or anyone else to whom you wish to send your passed (80%+)quiz results. NEW

Certificates: When you pass a quiz, clicking on the Finish button will take you to a PDF Certificate page. You can Print or Save the Certificate or simply close the window to exit. Remember to enter your real name at the beginning of the quiz if you want it printed on the Certificate. (Certificates do not work using the iSpring mobile apps; therefore you should select the "View in browser" option if you are doing the quizzes on a mobile device and want a Certificate).

Records: To help you keep track of your quizzes and results, we have a form that you can download and print out. The Nursing Quizzes Tracking Form is available in both MS Word and Adobe Acrobat formats.

Apps: We have taken the content from some of our quizzes and created several handy look-up / searchable apps. These free, no-ads apps can be viewed in a regular browser, tablet or smart phone, or downloaded to the iSpring mobile reader apps for convenient off-line reference. (See below).


1. Medical and Nursing Terminology

Knowing the language and terminology of medicine and nursing is critical to professional competence (998 quiz questions).

1.1 Anatomy Terms I –25Q | 50Q | 90Q: This quiz tests and reviews your knowledge of common terms and vocabulary related to the anatomy of the human body. (Your choice of a quiz with 25, 50 or all 90 questions).

1.2 Anatomy Terms II –25Q | 50Q | 90Q: Another quiz that tests and reviews your knowledge of other common terms and vocabulary related to the anatomy of the human body. (90 questions).

1.3 Body Structure Terms– 25Q | 50Q: Test, review and refresh your knowledge about the terms associated with the levels of organization of the human body; vocabulary related to direction, planes, quadrants and regions of the body; and definitions of the standard positions of body placement used to perform patient examinations, x-rays, medical and surgical procedures. (50 questions).

1.4 Disease Terms I –25Q | 65Q | 100Q: This quiz tests and reviews your knowledge of the names, definitions and symptoms of 100 common diseases and disorders. (100 questions).

1.5 Disease Terms II –25Q | 65Q | 100Q: A second quiz to assess and refresh your knowledge of the names, definitions and symptoms of another 100 common diseases and disorders. (100 questions).

1.6 Disease Terms III – 25Q | 65Q | 100Q: A third quiz to test and review your knowledge of the names, definitions and symptoms of another 100 common diseases and disorders. (100 questions).

1.7 Medical Terms I– 25Q | 65Q: This quiz is designed to assess and refresh your knowledge of common medical words, vocabulary and terminology. (65 questions).

1.8 Medical Terms II– 25Q | 65Q: Another quiz to test and review your knowledge of the common terms and professional vocabulary related to the practice of medicine and nursing. (65 questions).

1.9 Medical Word Roots– 25Q | 50Q | 76Q: Many of the medical terms used today can be traced back to the Greeks and Romans (Latin). Use this quiz to test and refresh your knowledge of some of the foreign word roots, prefixes and suffixes commonly used in medical and nursing terminology. (76 questions).

1.10 Microbiology Terms I –25Q | 50Q | 75Q: Test and refresh your knowledge of the basic terminology, definitions and vocabulary used in clinical microbiology. (75 questions).

1.11 Microbiology Terms II –25Q | 50Q | 75Q: Assess and review your knowledge of the basic terminology, definitions and vocabulary used in clinical microbiology. (75 questions).

1.12 Pharmacology Terms –25Q |75Q | 112Q: This quiz tests your knowledge of the basic terminology, definitions and concepts used in pharmacology. (112 questions).

2. Body Systems – Terminology

These quizzes focus on the medical terminology, definitions and vocabulary associated with specific body systems (545 quiz questions).

2.1 Cardiovascular System (25 questions from a pool of 55): Test, review and refresh your knowledge about the medical terms and vocabulary associated with the five structures of the cardiovascular system, the primary functions of the cardiovascular system, and the common treatments for cardiovascular diseases and disorders.

2.2 Digestive System(25 questions from 46): Test, review and refresh your knowledge about the terminology associated with the primary structures and functions of the digestive system, as well as terms related to medical treatments for digestive systems diseases and disorders.

2.3 Ear and Eye (25 questions from 44): Test, review and refresh your knowledge about the pathological, diagnostic and therapeutic terms associated with the primary structures and functions of the eyes and ears, and terminology related to treatments for eye / ear diseases and disorders.

2.4 Endocrine System (25 questions from 40): Test, review and refresh your knowledge about the medical terms associated with the structures and functions of the endocrine system, as well as treatments for related endocrine system diseases and disorders.

2.5 Immune System (25 questions from 45): Test, review and refresh your knowledge about the terminology associated with the main components and functions of blood, the five lymphatic structures and their functions, the immune response, and blood / lymphatic diseases, disorders and treatments.

2.6 Integumentary System (25 questions from 70): Test, review and refresh your knowledge about the medical terms associated with the three primary functions of the skin, the two layers and the three accessory organs of the skin, the three underlying structures of the skin, and medical treatments provided by dermatologists for skin diseases and disorders.

2.7 Musculoskeletal System (25 questions from 50): Test, review and refresh your knowledge about the terminology associated with the primary structures and functions of the musculoskeletal system, and related medical treatments for musculoskeletal diseases and disorders.

2.8 Nervous System (25 questions from 40): Test, review and refresh your knowledge about the terms associated with the primary structures and functions of the nervous system, as well as terminology related to neurological diseases, disorders and treatments.

2.9 Reproductive System (25 questions from 55): Test, review and refresh your knowledge about the terminology associated with the primary structures and functions of the female and male reproductive system, and reproductive system related diseases, disorders and treatments.

2.10 Respiratory System (25 questions from 55): Test, review and refresh your knowledge about the terms associated with the primary structures and functions of the respiratory systems and related disorders, diseases and treatments.

2.11 Urinary System(25 questions from 45): Test, review and refresh your knowledge about the terminology associated with the primary structures and functions of the urinary system, along with common diseases, disorders and treatments for urinary problems.

3. Body Systems – Basic Knowledge

Knowing the major human body systems, their components and functions is important core knowledge for nurses (1,624 quiz questions).

3.1 Anatomy and Physiology(25 questions from a pool of 105): Test, review and refresh your general knowledge about the anatomy and physiology of the human body.

3.2 Blood Components(25 questions from 81): Test and review your knowledge about blood – its components and functions.

3.3 Cardiovascular System(25 questions from 120): Test and refresh your knowledge about the heart and the cardiovascular system - its components and functions.

3.4 Cytology(25 questions from 80): Test and review your knowledge of cytology – the structures and functions of individual human cells.

3.5 Digestive System(25 questions from 120): Test and refresh your knowledge about the digestive system – its components and primary functions.

3.6 Endocrine System(25 questions from 90): Test and refresh your knowledge of the endocrine system – the various glands, hormones and their roles and functions.

3.7 Histology (25 questions from 120): Test and refresh your knowledge of histology – the various tissues (epithelial, connective, muscle and neural) and their composition and functions.

3.8 Human Development(25 questions from 70): Test and refresh your knowledge of human development – conception, fertilization, fetus development and growth, and the birth process.

3.9 Integumentary System(25 questions from 85): Test and review your knowledge of the integumentary system – the skin, hair, nails and related exocrine glands.

3.10 Lymphatic System(25 questions from 70): Test and review your knowledge of the lymphatic system – the lymphocytes, organs, vessels, antibodies. and how they protect the body.

3.11 Muscular System(25 questions from 100): Test and refresh your knowledge about the muscular system – the various muscle types, groups and functions.

3.12 Nervous System(25 questions from 106): Test and refresh your knowledge of the nervous system – the brain, cranial nerves and spinal cord and their roles and functions.

3.13 Organ Systems(25 questions from 112): This quiz is a high-level and general review of the human body's 11 organ systems, their components and major functions.

3.14 Reproductive System(25 questions from 85): Test and refresh your knowledge of the male and female reproductive system – the various parts, their locations and functions.

3.15 Respiratory System(25 questions from 65): Test and review your knowledge about the lungs and the respiratory system – its components and functions.

3.16 Skeletal System(25 questions from 140): Test and refresh your knowledge about the skeletal system and bones in the human body – components and functions.

3.17 Urinary System(25 questions from 75): Test and review your knowledge of the urinary system – the kidney and bladder and their roles and functions.


4. Body Systems – Illustrated Anatomy

The quizzes in this section consist of illustrated figures of selected body systems. These will assist you in identifying the various components and their locations within each body system. (588 quiz questions).

4.1 Cardiovascular (25 questions from a pool of 98): Test, review and refresh your general knowledge about the components of the cardiovascular system – the heart and the circulatory system comprising of the main arteries and veins.

4.2 Digestive & Respiratory (25 questions from 51): Assess and review your general knowledge about the appearance and location of the various parts of the human digestive and respiratory systems.

4.3 Eyes & Ears (25 questions from 68): Test and refresh your general knowledge of the various components of the human eye and ear.  

4.4 Integumentary(25 questions from 68): Assess and review your anatomical knowledge the integumentary system – the components and structure of the human skin and hair.

4.5 Muscular (25 questions from 52): Test and refresh your anatomical knowledge of the components of the human muscular system.

4.6 Nervous (25 questions from 56): Assess and review your general knowledge of the components of the human nervous system – the brain and the main nerves.

4.7 Reproductive & Urinary (25 questions from 86): Test and refresh your general knowledge of the various components of the male and female reproductive / sexual and urinary body systems.

4.8 Skeletal (25 questions from 109): Assess and review your anatomical knowledge of the components of the human skeletal system – the skeleton, bones and joints.


5. Diagnosis and Assessment

The knowledge, skills and critical thinking required to diagnose, assess and correctly identify client / patient / resident health problems and issues (853 questions).

5.1 Health Assessment (25 questions from 82): Assess and review your general knowledge regarding the purposes, processes and tests used in patient / client / resident health assessments.

5.2 HA Abnormal Findings I (25 questions from 80): Test and review your knowledge of the typical abnormal findings associated with a comprehensive health assessment of mental health, skin, hair, nails, eyes, ears, nose, throat, breasts and the cardiovascular system. NEW

5.3 HA Abnormal Findings II (25 questions from 80): Assess and refresh your knowledge of the common abnormal findings associated with a comprehensive health assessment of the respiratory, musculoskeletal, neurological, gastrointestinal and female/male genitourinary systems. NEW

5.4 Health Assessment App: This app provides a guide to a systematic and comprehensive health assessment of a client. The app is a brief reminder as to the health questions to ask overall and for each body system; the physical assessment observations to make; and some typical abnormal findings. A glossary of abnormal findings is included. (This app is optimized for viewing on regular browsers, tablets and mobile devices).

5.5 Diagnostic Tests I (25 questions from 85): Assess and refresh your general knowledge of common diagnostic tests, their applications and limitations.

5.6 Diagnostic Tests II (25 questions from 85): Test and review your knowledge of 63 specific diagnostic / laboratory tests that use analyses of biopsies, cultures, fluids, stool, sputum, urine and other studies.

5.7 Diagnostic Tests III (25 questions from 80): Assess and refresh your knowledge of 60 specific diagnostic / laboratory tests that use blood for analyses. 

5.8 Diagnostic Tests IV (25 questions from 80): Test and review your knowledge of another 57 specific blood-based diagnostic / laboratory tests.

5.9 Diagnostic Tests V (25 questions from 76): Assess and refresh your knowledge of 46 electrodiagnostic, endoscopic, manometric and ultasound diagnostic / laboratory tests used to assess diseases and disorders.

5.10 Diagnostic Tests VI (25 questions from 75): Test and review your knowledge of 45 nuclear scan and x-ray diagnostic / laboratory tests and their common applications.

5.11 Critical Diagnostic Test Values (25 questions from 75): Review and refresh your knowledge of the critical values of some diagnostic and laboratory tests – results that indicate immediate medical attention is required. The critical values in this quiz are presented in SI units.

5.12 SI Units of Measurement (25 questions from 55): Diagnostic and laboratory test results throughout most of the world (except United States) are reported in SI units. Use this quiz to review and refresh your knowledge of these SI measurement units. 

5.13 Diagnostic Tests I App: This app contains data on 180 laboratory tests that analyze blood, biospsies, cultures, fluids, stools, sputum and urine to assist in the diagnosis, monitoring and treatment of human diseases and disorders. The information provided includes the test name; its appropriate indications / applications; the specimen(s) that are analyzed; the normal ranges for results; and any critical values. Normal laboratory values are expressed in SI units; conventional units are presented in parenthesis ( ) after the SI units. 

5.14 Diagnostic Tests II App: This app contains data on 91 electrodiagnostic, endoscopic, manometric, nuclear scan, ultrasound and x-ray tests used to confirm, monitor and treat human diseases and disorders. The information provided includes the test name; its appropriate indications / applications; the technology used;and normal findings. 


6. Diseases and Disorders – Body Systems

The knowledge, skills and critical thinking that is required to diagnose and treat diseases and health disorders associated with the major human body systems (1,126 quiz questions).

6.1 Cardiovascular (25 questions from a pool of 90): Review and refresh your knowledge and skills about the many diseases and disorders that affect the cardiovascular system, e.g., aneurysm, angina, myocardial infarction, cardiogenic shock, endocarditis, hypertension, thrombophlebitis, aortic insufficiency, etc.

6.2 Endocrine (25 questions from 77): Review and refresh your knowledge and skills about the diseases and disorder that affect the endocrine system, e.g., hypo/hyper-thyroidism, goiter, diabetes, hyperpituitarism, Addison's Disease, Cushing's Syndrome, etc.

6.3 Fluids and Electrolytes (25 questions from 104): Review and refresh your knowledge and skills about the diseases and disorders affecting our body's fluids and electrolytes, e.g., hypo/hypernatremia, hypo/hypercalcemia, hypo/hyperkalemia, acidosis, alkalosis, dehydration, etc.

6.4 Gastrointestinal (25 questions from 90): Review and refresh your knowledge and skills about the diseases and disorders of the gastrointestinal system, e.g., appendicitis, cholecystitis, cirrhosis, Crohn's, diverticulitis, gastroenteritis, hepatitis, pancreatitis, ulcerative colitis, etc.

6.5 Genitourinary (25 questions from 76): Test and refresh your knowledge and skills about diseases and disorders affecting the genitourinary system, e.g., benign prostatic hypertrophy, bladder cancer, kidney cancer, kidney stones, renal failure, testicular cancer, urinary tract infection, etc.

6.6 Hematologic (25 questions from 80): Review and refresh your knowledge about the diseases and disorders of the hematologic (blood) system, e.g., anemia, iron deficiency anemia, pernicious anemia, hemophilia, leukemia, multiple myeloma, deep vein thrombosis, etc.

6.7 Immunity (25 questions from 85): Test and refresh your knowledge and skills about diseases and disorders affecting the immune system, e.g., AIDS, anaphylaxis, Kaposi's sarcoma, rheumatoid arthritis, scleroderma, mononucleosis, lyme disease, septic shock, etc.

6.8 Integumentary (25 questions from 74): Review and refresh your knowledge and skills about the diseases and disorders affecting the integumentary system, e.g., burns, dermatitis, skin cancers, cellulitis, pressure ulcers, wounds and healing.

6.9 Mental Health (25 questions from 70): Review and test your knowledge about mental health diseases and disorders, e.g., anxiety, panic disorder, depression, bipolar disorder, schizophrenia, anorexia / bulimia nervosa and delirium.

6.10 Musculoskeletal (25 questions from 81): Review and refresh your knowledge and skills about diseases and disorders of the musculoskeletal system, e.g., carpal tunnel syndrome, fractures, gout, osteroarthritis, osteromyelitis, and osteoporosis.

6.11 Neurological (25 questions from 110): Test and refresh your knowledge and skills about diseases and disorders of the nervous system, e.g., head injuries, Bell's palsy, brain abscess / tumor, cerebral aneurysm, encephalitis, meningitis, MS, Parkinson's, stroke, seizure, etc.

6.12 Respiratory (25 questions from 114): Review and refresh your knowledge and skills about disease and disorders affecting the respiratory system, e.g., asbestosis, asthma, atelectasis, bronchiectasis, emphysema, lung cancer, pleural effusion, pneumonia, tuberculosis, pulmonary embolism, etc.

6.13 Women(25 questions from 75): Review and test your knowledge and skills about the disorders and diseases affecting the human female body, e.g., breast cancer, cervical cancer, dysmenorrhea, infertility, menopause, ovarian cancer, trophoblastic disease, preeclampsia and eclampsia.

7. Common Health Problems

The knowledge, skills and critical thinking required to diagnose and provide nursing care for common diseases and health disorders (1,656 quiz questions).

7.1 Abdominal Pain (25 questions from 45): Assess and review your knowledge and ability to identify the most common causes of abdominal pain.

7.2 Back Pain (25 questions from 40): Test your knowledge and ability to identify the most common causes of acute lower back pain.

7.3 Breast Disorders (30 questions): Assess and refresh your knowledge and ability to diagnose common breast problems.

7.4 Cancer Risks (25 questions from 100): This quiz tests your knowledge regarding the various risk factors associated with the different types of cancer.

7.5 Cancer Symptoms (25 questions from 50): Test and refresh your knowledge regarding the symptoms associated with various types of cancers.

7.6 Chest Pain (25 questions from 60): Assess and review your knowledge regarding the common causes of emergent chest pain.

7.7 Childhood Diseases(25 questions from 70): Test and refresh your knowledge of the most common diseases and health problems in infants and young children.

7.8 Coughing (25 questions from 60): Assess and review your knowledge regarding the common causes of recent onset of cough and chronic cough.

7.9 Diarrhea (25 questions from 50): Test and refresh your knowledge regarding the common causes of acute and chronic diarrhea.

7.10 Dizziness (25 questions from 35): Assess and review your knowledge regarding the common causes of dizziness (vertigo).

7.11 Dyspnea (25 questions from 40): Test and refresh your knowledge regarding the emergent and non-emergent conditions manifested by dyspnea (shortness of breath).

7.12 Ear Pain (30 questions): Assess and review your knowledge and ability to diagnose common causes of ear pain and problems.

7.13 Eye Disorders (25 questions from 75): Test and refresh your knowledge regarding the common causes of red eye complaints and vision loss.

7.14 Fatigue (25 questions from 35): Assess and review your knowledge regarding the common causes of fatigue and tiredness.

7.15 Fever (30 items): Test and refresh your knowledge regarding the common causes of fever.

7.16 Genitourinary Disorders (25 questions from 56): Assess and review your knowledge regarding the common causes of genitourinary problems in males and females.

7.17 Gynecological Disorders (25 questions from 50): Test and refresh your knowledge regarding the common causes of vaginal bleeding, itching, discharge and other gynecological problems.

7.18 Headaches (25 questions from 50): Assess and review your knowledge regarding the common causes of headaches.

7.19 Limb Pain (25 questions from 68): Test and refresh your knowledge and diagnostic skills to identify the most common causes of pain in the arms and legs.

7.20 Mental Health Disorders (25 questions from 57): Assess and review your knowledge and diagnostic skills to assess a patient's /client's mental status and the six levels or stages of altered arousal.

7.21 Nasal and Sinus Disorders (25 questions from 56): Test and refresh your knowledge regarding the common causes of nasal symptoms and sinus congestion.

7.22 Nutritional Disorders (25 questions from 93): Assess and review your knowledge of the deficiencies / excesses of nutrition (vitamins, minerals, etc.) on health.

7.23 Perinatal Depression (25 questions from 72): This quiz assess and reviews your knowledge of the causes, risks, symptoms and treatments related to depression associated with pregnancy and childbirth.

7.24 Phobias (25 questions from 70): Assess and enhance your knowledge regarding the terms and definitions of some of the common phobias and fears.

7.25 Rectal Disorders (25 questions from 36): Test your knowledge and ability to recognize common causes of rectal pain, itching and bleeding.

7.26 Sexually Transmitted Diseases(25 questions from 93): Assess and review your knowledge of sexually transmitted diseases (STD). Warning: Disturbing images; viewer discretion advised!

7.27 Skin Disorders (25 questions from 63): Test your knowledge and ability to diagnose common skin problems.

7.28 Smoking (30 questions): Review your knowledge of smoking addictions, nicotine, treatments and effects on health.

7.29 Substance Abuse (25 questions from 60): Test and review your knowledge of abuse and addictions to street / recreational drugs and substances and their symptoms and consequences on health.

7.30 Throat Disorders (25 questions from 52): Assess and review your knowledge about common disorders such as sore throat and hoarseness.


8. Diabetes

Nursing competencies to understand, diagnose and provide quality health care to patients / clients with diabetes (295 questions).

8.1 Diabetes I (25 questions from 110): Review and refresh your knowledge and skills about providing nursing care to people with diabetes. Quiz topics include diagnosis and classification, assessment, monitoring, medicines management, hypoglycemia, and long-term complications of diabetes.

8.2 Diabetes II (25 questions from 70): Review and refresh your knowledge and skills about providing nursing care to people with diabetes. Quiz topics include diabetes and surgery, sexual health, older people, children and adolescents, women, and quality of life issues.

8.3 Diabetic Foot Care I (25 questions from 60): Review and refresh your knowledge and skills about providing foot care to people with diabetes.

8.4 Diabetic Foot Care II (25 questions from 55): This is another quiz to review and refresh your knowledge and skills about providing foot care to people with diabetes.


9. Nursing Care of Older Persons

The quizzes in this section are all related to the critical competencies needed to provide dignified, quality, health care to elderly and older clients / patients / residents (754 questions).

9.1 Person-Centered Care (25 questions from 42): Test and refresh your knowledge and skills about such topics as dignity, elder abuse, values, attitudes and person-centered care of elderly and older patients.

9.2 Hearing and Vision Loss (25 questions from 54): Test and refresh your knowledge and skills in identifying hearing and vision loss problems in the elderly, and managing / addressing these disabilities in providing quality health care services.

9.3 Mobility and Falls (25 questions from 50): Test and refresh your knowledge and skills regarding the risk factors, nursing assessments and prevention of falls, and how to maintain mobility in older persons.

9.4 Medical Disorders (25 questions from 92): Test and refresh your knowledge and competencies regarding the key medical conditions affecting elderly persons (e.g. arthritis, diabetes, Parkinson's, stroke, heart disease, leg ulcers, COPD and pneumonia), how to help older patients to better manage their own health, and understanding the complex interactions often found in seniors' health.

9.5 Mental Health (25 questions from 75): Test and refresh your knowledge and skills related to providing nursing care to older patients with dementia and other mental health problems.

9.6 Nutrition and Fluids (25 questions from 86): Test and refresh your knowledge and skills regarding healthy eating, nutritional screening, dietary assessment, and preventing and managing dehydration in older persons.

9.7 Elimination and Continence (25 questions from 85): Test and refresh your knowledge and competencies regarding normal elimination, the extent and impact of incontinence, causes of incontinence, assessment processes, and treatment strategies for incontinence in elderly clients / patients / residents.

9.8 Pain Management (25 questions from 122): Test and refresh your knowledge and skills regarding the different types of pain in older persons, consequences of poor pain management, pain physiology and aging, and pharmacological management of pain in the elderly.

9.9 Sleep Disorders(25 questions from 50): Test and refresh your knowledge and skills regarding changes that occur in the sleep cycle with age, key influences on sleep, and how to enhance sleep in older individuals.

9.10 End-of-life Care (25 questions from 98): Test and refresh your knowledge regarding what end-of-life involves, improving the the experience of care for dying clients, and the associated emotional challenges for patients, family and nursing staff.

10. Wound Management

These quizzes are designed to test and review your knowledge of providing effective nursing care of wounds. Most of the quizzes in this section come from our Pressure Ulcer eCourse  (521 quiz questions).

10.1 Pressure Ulcers I (25 questions from 66): Topics covered in this quiz include a definition of pressure ulcers, their causes, systems for classification of pressure ulcers, risk factors, and implications for patients and health systems.

10.2 Pressure Ulcers II (25 questions from 76): This quiz covers the topics of conducting pressure ulcer risk assessments on patients and an overview of the tools available for doing the PU risk assessments. 

10.3 Pressure Ulcers III (25 questions from 71): Topics covered by this quiz include strategies on how to effectively prevent the development of pressure ulcers, and an overview of treatment strategies for existing pressure ulcers.

10.4 Pressure Ulcers IV (25 questions from 82): This quiz covers the topics of repositioning and support surfaces for both prevention and treatment of pressure ulcers, and procedures / considerations for cleansing and debriding pressure ulcer wounds.

10.5 Pressure Ulcers V (25 questions from 84): Topics included in this quiz are the use of appropriate dressing depending on the stage of the pressure ulcer wound, and the role and application of nutrition as both a preventive and treatment strategy.

10.6 Pressure Ulcers VI (25 questions from 100): This last quiz covers the topics of identifying and treating infected pressure ulcers, pain management, and providing nursing care to patients who require surgery to treat severe pressure ulcers.

10.7 Wound Care (25 questions from 70): Test and refresh your knowledge regarding assessing and caring for various types of wounds.


11. Medications Administration

These quizzes test knowledge associated with safe and effective administration of prescription drugs medications (1,429 quiz questions).

11.1 Basic Mathematics– 25Q | 65Q | 100Q: This quiz is designed to assess and review your knowledge and basic mathematical skills necessary for accurate calculations of medication dosages. (100 questions).

11.2 Metric Conversions – 25Q | 60Q: This quiz assesses and reviews your knowledge of the metric measurement system and your ability to make correct conversions between the various units. (60 questions).

11.3 Tablet Dosage Calculations– 25Q | 50Q: This quiz tests and refreshes your knowledge and skills on how to calculate the correct tablet dosages. (50 questions).

11.4 Fluid Dosage Calculations– 25Q | 75Q: This quiz is designed to assess and review your knowledge and skills in calculating the correct fluid dosages for medications administration. (75 questions).

11.5 Injection Dosage Calculations– 25Q | 75Q: This quiz tests and refreshed you knowledge and skills in calculating the correct dosages for medication administration by injection. (75 questions).

11.6 Infusion Rate Calculations– 25Q | 65Q | 100Q: This quiz is designed to assess and review your knowledge and skills in calculating the correct intravenous (IV) dosages, flow rates and administration times. (100 questions).

11.7 Medication Abbreviations– 25Q | 80Q: This quiz tests and refreshes your knowledge regarding the medical abbreviations used in prescriptions, administration of medications, clinical notes and health records. (80 questions).

11.8 Safe Medication Principles– 25Q | 65Q: This quiz assesses and reviews the principles and best practices in the safe and effective administrations of medications. (65 questions).

11.9 Medication Errors– 25Q | 45Q: This quiz is designed to test and refresh your knowledge of the most common causes of medication errors. (45 questions).

11.10 Drug Classifications– 25Q | 65Q | 104Q: This quiz assesses and reviews your knowledge of the classifications / classes of prescription and over-the-counter drugs and their applications in preventing and treating symptoms and diseases. (104 questions).

11.11 Drug Categories– 25Q | 65Q | 103Q: This quiz tests and refreshes your knowledge of the categories / subcategories of the most commonly used generic drugs. (103 questions).

11.12 Drug Indications– 25Q | 65Q | 100Q: This quiz assesses and reviews your knowledge of the applications / indications of the most commonly used generic drugs. (100 questions).

11.13 Prescription Drugs I– 25Q | 65Q | 100Q: This quiz allows you to assess your knowledge of the 100 top generic-name drugs being currently prescribed and their applications / indications. (100 questions).

11.14 Prescription Drugs II– 25Q | 65Q | 100Q: This quiz includes approximately another 75 generic-name prescription drugs and their applications / indications. (100 questions).

11.15 Antibacterial Drugs– 25Q | 50Q: This quiz tests your knowledge of the common prescription drugs and medications used to manage and treat bacterial infections. (50 questions).

11.16 Antifungal Drugs– 25Q | 50Q: This quiz assesses and reviews your knowledge of the commonly prescribed drugs and medications used to treat fungal-caused infections. (50 questions).

11.17 Antiviral Drugs– 25Q | 60Q: This quiz tests and refreshes your knowledge of the commonly prescribed drugs and medications used to manage and treat viral infections such as herpes, HIV and influenza. (60 questions).

11.18 Antidotes– 30Q: This quiz reviews your knowledge regarding appropriate antidotes for common prescribed and over-the-counter drugs and various toxins / poisons. (30 questions).

11.19 Herb-Drug Interactions– 25Q | 75Q | 120Q: This quiz tests your knowledge regarding the potential effects and interactions between common herbal supplements and prescription drugs. (120 questions).

11.20 Dangerous Drug Combinations– 25Q | 82Q: Certain drugs should NOT be used in combination because of risks of adverse effects. This quiz assess and refreshes your knowledge regarding the most dangerous interactions between commonly prescribed medications. (82 questions).

11.21 Glossary of Drugs App: An online searchable directory of the approximately 100 most commonly prescribed generic-name drugs in Canada. Data includes name of the drug, indications, classifications, daily dosages, audio pronunciations, and links to more information. (Note: you must be connected to the Internet for the links to work; otherwise you can use it off-line.)

12. Clinical Microbiology

These quizzes are designed to test and refresh your knowledge of clinical microbiology – the pathogens, bacteria, fungi, parasites and viruses that are responsible for many human diseases (445 quiz questions).

12.1 Infectious Diseases (25 questions from 85): Review and refresh your knowledge of the causes (bacteria, fungi, protozoa, parasites or viruses) of some common infectious diseases.

12.2 Bacteria (25 questions from 110): Assess and review your knowledge of bacteria – streptococcus, staphylococcus, bacillus, clostridium, corynebacterium, listeria, neisseria, enterics, bordetella, brucella, chlamydia, spirochetes and more.

12.3 Fungi (25 questions from 50): Test and refresh your knowledge of fungi – their reproduction, spread and the diseases / disorders they cause in humans.

12.4 Helminths (25 questions from 50): Assess and review your knowledge of various helminths (worms, e.g. hookworm, pinworm, tapeworm, flatworm, roundworm, flukes) that are responsible for human diseases and health problems.

12.5 Protozoa (25 questions from 50): Test and refresh your knowledge of various protozoa (amoeba) that are responsible for human diseases and health problems e.g. malaria, babesia, chagas.

12.6 Viruses (25 questions from 100): Assess and review your knowledge of viruses – their replication and taxonomy, different types (DNA / RNA), diagnosis and the diseases they cause, e.g. colds, influenza, mumps, measles, hepatitis, rabies, West Nile, etc.

13. Safety

Competencies to provide safe care and secure environment for clients, patients and staff (235 quiz questions).

13.1 Managing Patient Rage (30 questions): This quiz assesses and reviews your knowledge and skills about how to appropriately and effective manage patients who are angry, aggressive or threatening.

13.2 Hygiene and Infection Control (25 questions from a pool of 70): This quiz tests and refreshes your knowledge about the best practices for preventing and controlling infectious diseases in a healthcare setting.

13.3 Infections Transmission Precautions(25 questions from 50): This quiz assesses and reviews your knowledge of transmission-based precautions that should be implemented when caring for patients with known or suspected highly-transmissible infections.

13.4 Personal Protective Devices (25 questions from 85): This quiz tests and refreshes your knowledge of the appropriate personal protective devices to utilize for preventing and controlling the spread of infections and infectious diseases.

13.5 Infection Precautions App: An online searchable directory of the appropriate infection precautions to take for 60 common infectious diseases. Data includes name of disease or micro-organism, presentation or symptoms, infectious substances, modes of transmission, appropriate precautions, incubation and communicability periods.

14. Information Management

Paperwork is probably the least exciting, yet most critical part of a nurse's work. After all - "If it wasn't charted, then it wasn't done!" (284 quiz questions).

14.1 Medical Charting (25 questions from 101): Test and refresh your knowledge and skills regarding the purposes, uses and correct ways to accurately chart, document and record a patient's health care.

14.2 Legal Risks(25 questions from 103): This quiz assesses and reviews your knowledge of the legal issues, requirements, risks and pitfalls associated with charting and record keeping in the health care system.

14.3 Computer Charting (25 questions from 80): Test and refresh your knowledge about the concepts and approaches related to current use of computers and technology in electronic medical charting, health care records and health information management systems.


15. Professionalism

These quizzes cover the knowledge, skills and competencies required to provide professional nursing care and to work effectively with patients / clients / residents and other members of the health care team. (377 quiz questions).

15.1 Nursing Ethics (25 questions from 100): Test and refresh your knowledge and skills regarding nursing ethics including definition of terms and application of ethical decision-making in typical ethical dilemma situations.

15.2 Professional Boundaries(25 questions from 85): Assess and review your knowledge about respecting professional boundaries and maintaining therapeutic relationships between a nurse and her patients / clients, co-workers and other professionals.

15.3 Professional Practice (25 questions from 116): Test and refresh your knowledge about the attitudes and behaviors required to maintain professionalism in your nursing practice.

15.4 Spiritual and Cultural Assessments (25 questions from 76): With the increasing diversity of patients / clients, it is important that nurses have an awareness of different cultures and religious beliefs. This quiz tests your knowledge of various cultural and spiritual practices that will affect how you provide nursing care to diverse individuals and groups. 

16. Nursing Practice

A nurse must possess many nursing competencies to provide quality health care to patients / clients. The following quizzes are an excellent review of general nursing practice. These quizzes are also useful in preparing for nursing licensing exams such as NCLEX. (510 quiz questions).

16.1 Nursing Practice I – 50Q | 100Q: Test and refresh your knowledge and skills regarding professional nursing practice (100 questions).

16.2 Nursing Practice II– 50Q | 100Q: Another quiz with different questions to test your knowledge of professional nursing practices. (100 questions).

16.3 Nursing Practice III– 50Q | 100Q: A third quiz with different questions to assess and refresh your knowledge of general professional nursing practices. (100 questions).

16.4 Pediatric Nursing I – 50Q | 105Q: Test and refresh your knowledge and skills about providing quality nursing care to infants, children and youth.  (105 questions).

16.5 Pediatric Nursing II – 50Q | 105Q: Another quiz with different questions to assess and review your knowledge and skills about providing quality nursing care to pediatric patients. (105 questions).

Technology Notes

These nursing quizzes can be completed on regular browsers, tablets and smart phones. (The quizzes are in HTML5 format so Adobe Flash is not required). For iPhones and iPads, download and install the FREE iSpring viewer from the iTunes Store. For Android devices, the iSpring Player mobile app is available here.

The quizzes can be downloaded and saved on your mobile device and completed off-line at your convenience. HOWEVER, you must be connected to the Internet when doing a quiz if you wish to obtain a Certificate. Also, you cannot obtain a Certificate using the iSpring mobile apps; use "View in browser" option on your mobile device.

If you are using these quizzes for class assignments, continuing education credits or continuing competence programs, and want a copy of the Results and/or Certificate for your records, enter your name when requested. Otherwise, use Guest and proceed with the quiz. The quiz scores are tracked and recorded BUT only for analysis and research purposes.